Mock Test 1 — 50 MCQs
Time: 45 minutes
Marks: 50
Click on “Mock Test 1” to open the Google Form and attempt the pharmacy MCQs to assess your preparation for the KRL Pharmacist Test. This pharmacist mock test covers important topics relevant to pharmacy exam preparation.
After completing the test, check your answers and read the brief explanations provided at the end of this post to identify your strengths and areas that need further revision.
Mock Test 1
Pharmacology & Therapeutics
1. Which of the following is considered a first-line treatment option for focal (partial-onset) seizures?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Phenobarbital
C. Gabapentin
D. Primidone
2. Which antihypertensive drug is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Labetalol
B. Methyldopa
C. Nifedipine
D. Enalapril
3. A patient taking warfarin develops a significantly elevated INR. Which medication is most likely to increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin?
A. Rifampicin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Metronidazole
D. Cholestyramine
4. Which adverse effect is most characteristic of ACE inhibitors?
A. Constipation
B. Dry cough
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Bradycardia
5. Which insulin has the longest duration of action?
A. Regular insulin
B. NPH insulin
C. Insulin glargine
D. Insulin degludec
6. Which drug is contraindicated in a patient with a history of transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
A. Clopidogrel
B. Aspirin
C. Prasugrel
D. Ticagrelor
7. Which medication is most appropriate for rapid relief of an acute asthma attack?
A. Salmeterol
B. Budesonide
C. Montelukast
D. Salbutamol
8. A patient taking digoxin develops nausea, visual disturbances, and arrhythmia. Which laboratory value is particularly important to assess because it can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity?
A. Serum potassium
B. Serum calcium
C. Serum sodium
D. Serum chloride
9. Which drug is a selective β1-adrenergic blocker?
A. Propranolol
B. Atenolol
C. Carvedilol
D. Labetalol
10. Which medication is commonly used as an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine sulfate
Clinical Pharmacy
11. A patient with type 2 diabetes is taking metformin long-term. Which laboratory parameter should be monitored periodically?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin E
12. Which medication is most likely to cause serotonin syndrome when combined with an SSRI such as citalopram?
A. Linezolid
B. Amoxicillin
C. Omeprazole
D. Furosemide
13. Which drug is preferred for the prevention of ACE inhibitor–induced progression of diabetic nephropathy?
A. Enalapril
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Amlodipine
D. Propranolol
14. An elderly patient develops confusion and excessive sedation after starting a medication for insomnia. Which class is most likely responsible?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Penicillins
C. Statins
D. Antacids
15. Which medication should generally be avoided in a patient with a history of severe peptic ulcer disease?
A. Paracetamol
B. Ibuprofen
C. Cetirizine
D. Amoxicillin
16. Which drug is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
A. Tamsulosin
B. Oxybutynin
C. Finasteride only for acute relief
D. Furosemide
17. A patient taking spironolactone is at increased risk of:
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
18. Which drug requires monitoring of serum drug concentration because of a narrow therapeutic index?
A. Digoxin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Cetirizine
D. Pantoprazole
19. Which medication can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by inducing hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes?
A. Rifampicin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Paracetamol
D. Metformin
20. Which adverse effect is particularly associated with statins?
A. Severe hypoglycemia
B. Myopathy
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Gingival hyperplasia
Pharmaceutics & Calculations
21. How many grams of drug are required to prepare 500 mL of a 2% w/v solution?
A. 1 g
B. 5 g
C. 10 g
D. 20 g
22. A prescription requires 250 mg of a drug. The available injection contains 500 mg/2 mL. How many mL should be administered?
A. 0.5 mL
B. 1 mL
C. 1.5 mL
D. 2 mL
23. Which route of administration provides 100% bioavailability?
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Intravenous
D. Subcutaneous
24. Which dosage form is designed to release the drug slowly over an extended period?
A. Immediate-release tablet
B. Extended-release tablet
C. Sublingual tablet
D. Effervescent tablet
25. Which method is most appropriate for sterilizing a heat-sensitive pharmaceutical solution?
A. Dry heat
B. Autoclaving
C. Membrane filtration
D. Incineration
26. The main purpose of an enteric coating is to:
A. Increase tablet sweetness
B. Prevent drug release in the stomach
C. Increase drug solubility in water
D. Make the tablet larger
27. Which route generally avoids first-pass hepatic metabolism?
A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Enteral tube administration
D. Oral suspension
28. A 1:1000 solution contains:
A. 1 g in 10 mL
B. 1 g in 100 mL
C. 1 g in 1000 mL
D. 1000 g in 1 mL
Pharmaceutical Chemistry & Microbiology
29. Which functional group is characteristic of carboxylic acids?
A. –OH
B. –COOH
C. –NH₂
D. –SH
30. Which microorganism is commonly associated with pseudomembranous colitis following antibiotic use?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Clostridioides difficile
C. Escherichia coli
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
31. Which antibiotic inhibits bacterial cell-wall synthesis?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Gentamicin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Azithromycin
32. Which antibiotic class inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Macrolides
C. Penicillins
D. Glycopeptides
33. Which organism is Gram-positive cocci arranged in clusters?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Neisseria meningitidis
34. Which method is commonly used to sterilize surgical instruments?
A. Pasteurization
B. Autoclaving
C. Refrigeration
D. UV exposure only
Hospital Pharmacy & Medication Safety
35. Which medication error is represented by writing “5.0 mg” instead of “5 mg”?
A. Wrong route error
B. Trailing-zero error
C. Decimal omission error
D. Wrong-patient error
36. Which is the best practice for a verbal medication order?
A. Accept all verbal orders without documentation
B. Repeat the order back to the prescriber for confirmation
C. Ask another patient to confirm it
D. Document it only after administration
37. Which system is specifically designed to help prevent medication errors during transitions of care?
A. Medication reconciliation
B. Therapeutic substitution
C. Drug dilution
D. Formulation change
38. A pharmacist discovers that a medication has been stored outside its recommended temperature range. The first step should be to:
A. Dispense it immediately
B. Ignore the deviation
C. Quarantine the affected stock and assess its stability
D. Dispose of the entire pharmacy inventory
39. Which type of medication is considered a high-alert medication?
A. Insulin
B. Multivitamin
C. Topical moisturizer
D. Oral rehydration solution
40. Which document is most appropriate for recording controlled-drug transactions?
A. Patient satisfaction form
B. Controlled-drug register
C. Staff attendance sheet
D. Purchase advertisement
Pharmacy Practice, Epidemiology & Pharmacoeconomics
41. Which study design is most appropriate for investigating whether a previous exposure is associated with a rare disease?
A. Case-control study
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Ecological study
D. Case report
42. Which measure is commonly used to compare disease incidence between exposed and unexposed groups in a cohort study?
A. Relative risk
B. Odds ratio only
C. Median
D. Standard deviation
43. The primary purpose of an Institutional Review Board (IRB) is to:
A. Approve pharmaceutical advertisements
B. Protect the rights and welfare of research participants
C. Determine drug prices
D. Manufacture investigational drugs
44. In a randomized controlled trial, randomization primarily helps to:
A. Increase drug potency
B. Reduce selection bias and balance confounding factors
C. Eliminate the need for informed consent
D. Guarantee statistically significant results
45. A p-value of 0.03 is generally interpreted as:
A. The null hypothesis has a 3% probability of being true
B. The result would be relatively unlikely under the null hypothesis
C. The treatment is 97% effective
D. There is no statistical association
46. What does ICER stand for in pharmacoeconomics?
A. Incremental Cost-Effectiveness Ratio
B. International Clinical Evidence Review
C. Incremental Clinical Efficacy Rate
D. Internal Cost Evaluation Report
47. Cost-benefit analysis differs from cost-effectiveness analysis because:
A. Cost-benefit analysis expresses both costs and outcomes in monetary terms
B. Cost-benefit analysis ignores treatment outcomes
C. Cost-effectiveness analysis always uses QALYs
D. Cost-effectiveness analysis does not consider costs
48. One QALY represents:
A. One year of life regardless of health status
B. One year of life in perfect health
C. Five years of life with disability
D. One month of perfect health
Ethics & Professional Practice
49. A pharmacist accesses a patient's medical record without a legitimate professional reason. This primarily violates the principle of:
A. Confidentiality
B. Beneficence
C. Justice
D. Autonomy
50. Which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy because it is a live attenuated vaccine?
A. Hepatitis B vaccine
B. Inactivated influenza vaccine
C. MMR vaccine
D. Tdap vaccine
1. Which of the following is considered a first-line treatment option for focal (partial-onset) seizures?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Phenobarbital
C. Gabapentin
D. Primidone
Answer: A. Carbamazepine
Explanation: Carbamazepine is an established treatment option for focal-onset seizures.
2. Which antihypertensive drug is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Labetalol
B. Methyldopa
C. Nifedipine
D. Enalapril
Answer: D. Enalapril
Explanation: ACE inhibitors are contraindicated during pregnancy because of potentially serious fetal renal and developmental toxicity.
3. A patient taking warfarin develops a significantly elevated INR. Which medication is most likely to increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin?
A. Rifampicin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Metronidazole
D. Cholestyramine
Answer: C. Metronidazole
Explanation: Metronidazole can increase warfarin's anticoagulant effect and significantly raise the INR.
4. Which adverse effect is most characteristic of ACE inhibitors?
A. Constipation
B. Dry cough
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B. Dry cough
Explanation: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, which can cause a persistent dry cough.
5. Which insulin has the longest duration of action?
A. Regular insulin
B. NPH insulin
C. Insulin glargine
D. Insulin degludec
Answer: D. Insulin degludec
Explanation: Insulin degludec is an ultra-long-acting basal insulin with a duration exceeding 42 hours.
6. Which drug is contraindicated in a patient with a history of transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
A. Clopidogrel
B. Aspirin
C. Prasugrel
D. Ticagrelor
Answer: C. Prasugrel
Explanation: Prasugrel is contraindicated in patients with previous TIA or stroke because of increased bleeding risk.
7. Which medication is most appropriate for rapid relief of an acute asthma attack?
A. Salmeterol
B. Budesonide
C. Montelukast
D. Salbutamol
Answer: D. Salbutamol
Explanation: Salbutamol is a short-acting β₂-agonist that provides rapid bronchodilation during acute bronchospasm.
8. A patient taking digoxin develops nausea, visual disturbances, and arrhythmia. Which laboratory value is particularly important to assess because it can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity?
A. Serum potassium
B. Serum calcium
C. Serum sodium
D. Serum chloride
Answer: A. Serum potassium
Explanation: Hypokalemia increases myocardial sensitivity to digoxin and increases the risk of toxicity.
9. Which drug is a selective β1-adrenergic blocker?
A. Propranolol
B. Atenolol
C. Carvedilol
D. Labetalol
Answer: B. Atenolol
Explanation: Atenolol is relatively selective for β1 receptors at usual therapeutic doses.
10. Which medication is commonly used as an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine sulfate
Answer: C. Flumazenil
Explanation: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used in selected benzodiazepine overdoses.
11. A patient with type 2 diabetes is taking metformin long-term. Which laboratory parameter should be monitored periodically?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin E
Answer: A. Vitamin B12
Explanation: Long-term metformin use can reduce vitamin B12 absorption, so periodic monitoring may be appropriate.
12. Which medication is most likely to cause serotonin syndrome when combined with an SSRI such as citalopram?
A. Linezolid
B. Amoxicillin
C. Omeprazole
D. Furosemide
Answer: A. Linezolid
Explanation: Linezolid has MAO-inhibiting activity and can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome with serotonergic medications.
13. Which drug is preferred for the prevention of ACE inhibitor–induced progression of diabetic nephropathy?
A. Enalapril
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Amlodipine
D. Propranolol
Answer: A. Enalapril
Explanation: ACE inhibitors reduce intraglomerular pressure and albuminuria and can slow diabetic kidney disease progression in appropriate patients.
14. An elderly patient develops confusion and excessive sedation after starting a medication for insomnia. Which class is most likely responsible?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Penicillins
C. Statins
D. Antacids
Answer: A. Benzodiazepines
Explanation: Benzodiazepines can cause sedation, confusion, falls, and cognitive impairment, especially in older adults.
15. Which medication should generally be avoided in a patient with a history of severe peptic ulcer disease?
A. Paracetamol
B. Ibuprofen
C. Cetirizine
D. Amoxicillin
Answer: B. Ibuprofen
Explanation: NSAIDs such as ibuprofen can damage the gastric mucosa and increase the risk of ulcer complications.
16. Which drug is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
A. Tamsulosin
B. Oxybutynin
C. Finasteride only for acute relief
D. Furosemide
Answer: A. Tamsulosin
Explanation: Tamsulosin selectively blocks α1A receptors in the prostate and improves lower urinary tract symptoms.
17. A patient taking spironolactone is at increased risk of:
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: B. Hyperkalemia
Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and aldosterone antagonist, so it can increase serum potassium.
18. Which drug requires monitoring of serum drug concentration because of a narrow therapeutic index?
A. Digoxin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Cetirizine
D. Pantoprazole
Answer: A. Digoxin
Explanation: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, making toxicity monitoring important in selected patients.
19. Which medication can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by inducing hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes?
A. Rifampicin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Paracetamol
D. Metformin
Answer: A. Rifampicin
Explanation: Rifampicin strongly induces hepatic enzymes and can reduce concentrations and effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives.
20. Which adverse effect is particularly associated with statins?
A. Severe hypoglycemia
B. Myopathy
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Gingival hyperplasia
Answer: B. Myopathy
Explanation: Statins can cause muscle symptoms ranging from myalgia to rare rhabdomyolysis.
21. How many grams of drug are required to prepare 500 mL of a 2% w/v solution?
A. 1 g
B. 5 g
C. 10 g
D. 20 g
Answer: C. 10 g
Explanation: 2% w/v = 2 g/100 mL. Therefore, 500 mL requires 10 g.
22. A prescription requires 250 mg of a drug. The available injection contains 500 mg/2 mL. How many mL should be administered?
A. 0.5 mL
B. 1 mL
C. 1.5 mL
D. 2 mL
Answer: B. 1 mL
Explanation: 500 mg/2 mL = 250 mg/mL. Therefore, 250 mg requires 1 mL.
23. Which route of administration provides 100% bioavailability?
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Intravenous
D. Subcutaneous
Answer: C. Intravenous
Explanation: IV administration delivers the drug directly into systemic circulation, giving essentially 100% bioavailability.
24. Which dosage form is designed to release the drug slowly over an extended period?
A. Immediate-release tablet
B. Extended-release tablet
C. Sublingual tablet
D. Effervescent tablet
Answer: B. Extended-release tablet
Explanation: Extended-release formulations release drug gradually to prolong therapeutic concentrations.
25. Which method is most appropriate for sterilizing a heat-sensitive pharmaceutical solution?
A. Dry heat
B. Autoclaving
C. Membrane filtration
D. Incineration
Answer: C. Membrane filtration
Explanation: Sterile filtration is appropriate for many heat-sensitive solutions that cannot undergo heat sterilization.
26. The main purpose of an enteric coating is to:
A. Increase tablet sweetness
B. Prevent drug release in the stomach
C. Increase drug solubility in water
D. Make the tablet larger
Answer: B. Prevent drug release in the stomach
Explanation: Enteric coatings resist gastric conditions and dissolve at the higher pH of the intestine.
27. Which route generally avoids first-pass hepatic metabolism?
A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Enteral tube administration
D. Oral suspension
Answer: B. Sublingual
Explanation: Sublingual absorption enters systemic circulation directly and largely bypasses first-pass hepatic metabolism.
28. A 1:1000 solution contains:
A. 1 g in 10 mL
B. 1 g in 100 mL
C. 1 g in 1000 mL
D. 1000 g in 1 mL
Answer: C. 1 g in 1000 mL
Explanation: A 1:1000 ratio conventionally represents 1 g of substance in 1000 mL of solution.
29. Which functional group is characteristic of carboxylic acids?
A. –OH
B. –COOH
C. –NH₂
D. –SH
Answer: B. –COOH
Explanation: The carboxyl group (–COOH) is characteristic of carboxylic acids.
30. Which microorganism is commonly associated with pseudomembranous colitis following antibiotic use?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Clostridioides difficile
C. Escherichia coli
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Answer: B. Clostridioides difficile
Explanation: Antibiotic-associated disruption of gut flora can allow C. difficile overgrowth and toxin-mediated colitis.
31. Which antibiotic inhibits bacterial cell-wall synthesis?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Gentamicin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Azithromycin
Answer: C. Amoxicillin
Explanation: Amoxicillin is a β-lactam antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell-wall synthesis.
32. Which antibiotic class inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Macrolides
C. Penicillins
D. Glycopeptides
Answer: A. Aminoglycosides
Explanation: Aminoglycosides bind the 30S ribosomal subunit and interfere with bacterial protein synthesis.
33. Which organism is Gram-positive cocci arranged in clusters?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Neisseria meningitidis
Answer: B. Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation: S. aureus appears as Gram-positive cocci characteristically arranged in clusters.
34. Which method is commonly used to sterilize surgical instruments?
A. Pasteurization
B. Autoclaving
C. Refrigeration
D. UV exposure only
Answer: B. Autoclaving
Explanation: Autoclaving uses pressurized steam and is a standard method for sterilizing many heat-stable surgical instruments.
35. Which medication error is represented by writing “5.0 mg” instead of “5 mg”?
A. Wrong route error
B. Trailing-zero error
C. Decimal omission error
D. Wrong-patient error
Answer: B. Trailing-zero error
Explanation: Writing 5.0 mg can lead to tenfold dosing errors; the safer notation is 5 mg.
36. Which is the best practice for a verbal medication order?
A. Accept all verbal orders without documentation
B. Repeat the order back to the prescriber for confirmation
C. Ask another patient to confirm it
D. Document it only after administration
Answer: B. Repeat the order back to the prescriber for confirmation
Explanation: Read-back/repeat-back helps verify verbal orders and reduce communication errors.
37. Which system is specifically designed to help prevent medication errors during transitions of care?
A. Medication reconciliation
B. Therapeutic substitution
C. Drug dilution
D. Formulation change
Answer: A. Medication reconciliation
Explanation: Medication reconciliation compares medication lists during transitions of care to identify discrepancies.
38. A pharmacist discovers that a medication has been stored outside its recommended temperature range. The first step should be to:
A. Dispense it immediately
B. Ignore the deviation
C. Quarantine the affected stock and assess its stability
D. Dispose of the entire pharmacy inventory
Answer: C. Quarantine the affected stock and assess its stability
Explanation: Potentially compromised medication should be separated until its quality and stability are evaluated.
39. Which type of medication is considered a high-alert medication?
A. Insulin
B. Multivitamin
C. Topical moisturizer
D. Oral rehydration solution
Answer: A. Insulin
Explanation: Insulin is a high-alert medication because errors can cause serious patient harm.
40. Which document is most appropriate for recording controlled-drug transactions?
A. Patient satisfaction form
B. Controlled-drug register
C. Staff attendance sheet
D. Purchase advertisement
Answer: B. Controlled-drug register
Explanation: Controlled medicines require appropriate documentation and transaction records according to applicable regulations.
41. Which study design is most appropriate for investigating whether a previous exposure is associated with a rare disease?
A. Case-control study
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Ecological study
D. Case report
Answer: A. Case-control study
Explanation: Case-control studies are particularly efficient for studying rare diseases by comparing previous exposures in cases and controls.
42. Which measure is commonly used to compare disease incidence between exposed and unexposed groups in a cohort study?
A. Relative risk
B. Odds ratio only
C. Median
D. Standard deviation
Answer: A. Relative risk
Explanation: Relative risk directly compares disease incidence in exposed versus unexposed groups in cohort studies.
43. The primary purpose of an Institutional Review Board (IRB) is to:
A. Approve pharmaceutical advertisements
B. Protect the rights and welfare of research participants
C. Determine drug prices
D. Manufacture investigational drugs
Answer: B. Protect the rights and welfare of research participants
Explanation: IRBs review research to protect participants' rights, safety, and welfare.
44. In a randomized controlled trial, randomization primarily helps to:
A. Increase drug potency
B. Reduce selection bias and balance confounding factors
C. Eliminate the need for informed consent
D. Guarantee statistically significant results
Answer: B. Reduce selection bias and balance confounding factors
Explanation: Randomization helps create comparable groups and reduces systematic differences between treatment groups.
45. A p-value of 0.03 is generally interpreted as:
A. The null hypothesis has a 3% probability of being true
B. The result would be relatively unlikely under the null hypothesis
C. The treatment is 97% effective
D. There is no statistical association
Answer: B. The result would be relatively unlikely under the null hypothesis
Explanation: A p-value of 0.03 means that results this extreme would be relatively unlikely if the null hypothesis were true.
46. What does ICER stand for in pharmacoeconomics?
A. Incremental Cost-Effectiveness Ratio
B. International Clinical Evidence Review
C. Incremental Clinical Efficacy Rate
D. Internal Cost Evaluation Report
Answer: A. Incremental Cost-Effectiveness Ratio
Explanation: ICER compares the additional cost with the additional health benefit between two interventions.
47. Cost-benefit analysis differs from cost-effectiveness analysis because:
A. Cost-benefit analysis expresses both costs and outcomes in monetary terms
B. Cost-benefit analysis ignores treatment outcomes
C. Cost-effectiveness analysis always uses QALYs
D. Cost-effectiveness analysis does not consider costs
Answer: A. Cost-benefit analysis expresses both costs and outcomes in monetary terms
Explanation: CBA converts both costs and benefits into monetary values, whereas CEA generally measures outcomes in clinical or natural units.
48. One QALY represents:
A. One year of life regardless of health status
B. One year of life in perfect health
C. Five years of life with disability
D. One month of perfect health
Answer: B. One year of life in perfect health
Explanation: One QALY represents one year weighted by a health-related quality-of-life utility of 1.0.
49. A pharmacist accesses a patient's medical record without a legitimate professional reason. This primarily violates the principle of:
A. Confidentiality
B. Beneficence
C. Justice
D. Autonomy
Answer: A. Confidentiality
Explanation: Accessing a patient's record without a legitimate professional reason violates patient confidentiality and privacy.
50. Which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy because it is a live attenuated vaccine?
A. Hepatitis B vaccine
B. Inactivated influenza vaccine
C. MMR vaccine
D. Tdap vaccine
Answer: C. MMR vaccine
Explanation: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy.
Answer Key at a Glance
1-A | 2-D | 3-C | 4-B | 5-D | 6-C | 7-D | 8-A | 9-B | 10-C
11-A | 12-A | 13-A | 14-A | 15-B | 16-A | 17-B | 18-A | 19-A | 20-B
21-C | 22-B | 23-C | 24-B | 25-C | 26-B | 27-B | 28-C | 29-B | 30-B
31-C | 32-A | 33-B | 34-B | 35-B | 36-B | 37-A | 38-C | 39-A | 40-B
41-A | 42-A | 43-B | 44-B | 45-B | 46-A | 47-A | 48-B | 49-A | 50-C
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