Prometric Questions - Yellow File - MOH | SPLE | HAAD | DHA - 41



A 33-year-old woman with a history of migraine and hypothyroidism is a nurse and has one child. She is currently 15 weeks pregnant and asks for advice regarding vaccination. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy?

A. Hepatitis B vaccine
B. Inactivated influenza vaccine
C. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine
D. Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap) vaccine

Correct answer is: C. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine

The MMR vaccine contains live attenuated viruses. Live attenuated vaccines are generally contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission to the fetus and subsequent congenital malformations (e.g., Congenital Rubella Syndrome).

If a woman is found to be non-immune to rubella during pregnancy, the MMR vaccine should be deferred until the immediate postpartum period prior to discharge.

Key Vaccine Recommendations in Pregnancy

Live Attenuated Vaccines (Contraindicated): MMR, Varicella, Live Attenuated Influenza Vaccine (LAIV / nasal spray), HPV (not recommended due to lack of safety data).

Inactivated / Subunit / Toxoid Vaccines (Safe & Recommended):

Tdap: Recommended during every pregnancy, ideally between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation, to maximize passive antibody transfer to the newborn for protection against pertussis (whooping cough).

Inactivated Influenza Vaccine: Recommended during any trimester of pregnancy during the flu season.

Hepatitis B Vaccine: Safe to give during pregnancy if the patient is at risk or indicated.

Which of the following drug classes can help prevent the progression of microalbuminuria to macroalbuminuria in patients with diabetes mellitus?

A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
B. β-Blockers
C. Diuretics
D. Cardiac glycosides

Correct answer is: A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.

ACE inhibitors (as well as Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers, or ARBs) decrease intraglomerular pressure by selectively dilating the efferent arterioles of the kidney. This hemodynamic effect reduces glomerular hyperfiltration, decreases protein excretion, and significantly delays the progression from microalbuminuria to macroalbuminuria in diabetic nephropathy.

Key Clinical Points:
First-Line Indication: ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril, enalapril) or ARBs (e.g., losartan, valsartan) are the first-line antihypertensive agents for patients with diabetes and microalbuminuria, regardless of whether hypertension is present.
Mechanism: By blocking angiotensin II, these agents selectively relax efferent arterioles $\rightarrow$ lower intraglomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure $\rightarrow$ reduce protein leakage through the filtration barrier.
Monitoring: When starting an ACE inhibitor, monitor baseline serum creatinine and potassium levels, as slight benign increases in creatinine (up to 30%) and mild hyperkalemia can occur.

A nurse asks about the appropriate timing for obtaining a trough gentamicin concentration. When should the blood sample be collected?

A. 1 hour after gentamicin administration
B. 30 minutes after gentamicin administration
C. 1 hour before the scheduled gentamicin dose
D. 30 minutes before the scheduled gentamicin dose

Correct Answer: D. 30 minutes before the scheduled gentamicin dose

Reason: A trough concentration is the lowest serum drug concentration, measured immediately before the next dose. For gentamicin, the sample is commonly obtained shortly before the next scheduled dose; about 30 minutes before the dose is often used in practice, depending on the institutional protocol.

Therefore, among the options, D. 30 minutes before the scheduled gentamicin dose is the more precise answer.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. 1 hour after administration: This is during the post-dose distribution/elimination period and is not a trough.

B. 30 minutes after administration: Also a post-dose concentration, not a trough.

C. 1 hour before the scheduled dose: Close to the trough, but less commonly specified than a sample immediately/approximately 30 minutes before the next dose.

D. 30 minutes before the scheduled dose — Correct: Provides a measurement close to the pre-dose (trough) concentration.

Exam pearl: 

Trough = just before the next dose. Measures drug clearance and prevents accumulation. Excessive trough levels are directly associated with nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.

Peak = after administration, at the appropriate post-dose sampling time. Ensures therapeutic efficacy for killing bacteria (gentamicin exhibits concentration-dependent killing).

Which of the following antiplatelet agents is contraindicated in patients with a history of transient ischemic attack (TIA) or stroke?

A. Prasugrel
B. Ticagrelor
C. Clopidogrel
D. Dipyridamole

Correct Answer: A. Prasugrel

Reason: Prasugrel is contraindicated in patients with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA) because it significantly increases the risk of serious and potentially fatal bleeding, particularly intracranial hemorrhage.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Ticagrelor: Not contraindicated solely because of a previous TIA or stroke, although bleeding risk must be considered.

C. Clopidogrel: Can be used for secondary prevention of ischemic stroke/TIA and is not contraindicated in these patients.

D. Dipyridamole: Used, often in combination with aspirin, for secondary prevention of stroke/TIA and is not contraindicated.

Exam pearl: Prasugrel + previous TIA/stroke = contraindicated.

An 80-year-old woman is admitted with pyelonephritis and sepsis. Her medical history includes myocardial infarction, heart failure, hypertension, and osteoporosis. She is started on trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). Her other medications include lisinopril, digoxin, furosemide, carvedilol, and calcium carbonate.

Laboratory results are:

  • BUN: 8.92 mmol/L (reference range: 2.8–8.9 mmol/L)

  • Serum creatinine: 81.41 µmol/L (reference range: 44–115 µmol/L)

Which of the following is the most appropriate assessment of her renal function?

A. Her serum creatinine is within the normal range, so no dosage adjustment is necessary.
B. Her serum creatinine is within the normal range, but her elevated BUN indicates that dosage adjustments may be necessary.
C. Because she has pyelonephritis, she has renal dysfunction and dosage adjustments are necessary.
D. Because of her age, she is likely to have reduced renal function, and dosage adjustments may be necessary.

Correct answer: D. Because of her age, she is likely to have reduced renal function, and dosage adjustments may be necessary.

Why?

In older adults, serum creatinine can appear normal despite reduced renal function because of reduced muscle mass. Renal function should therefore be estimated using an appropriate equation, rather than relying solely on serum creatinine.

This is particularly important here because drugs such as TMP-SMX and digoxin require attention to renal function.

A. Normal SCr → no adjustment — Incorrect: A normal serum creatinine does not rule out reduced renal function in an elderly patient.

B. Normal SCr but elevated BUN — Incorrect: The slightly elevated BUN alone is not the key issue. The patient's age and potentially reduced creatinine production make serum creatinine an unreliable standalone marker. BUN is influenced by non-renal factors such as dehydration, sepsis, heart failure, and catabolic stress. BUN alone is not the primary basis for calculating renal drug dosage adjustments; estimated CrCl or GFR based on age and creatinine is required.

C. Pyelonephritis automatically causes renal dysfunction — Incorrect: Pyelonephritis does not necessarily mean that significant renal impairment is present. Renal function must be assessed objectively. Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract infection, but its presence alone does not automatically mean a patient has pre-existing or permanent renal dysfunction. The primary driver for renal dosing adjustment here is her age-related physiological decline in GFR, rather than the infection diagnosis itself.

D. Age-related reduction in renal function — Correct: Older adults may have substantially reduced renal clearance despite a serum creatinine within the laboratory reference range. Estimated creatinine clearance/eGFR should guide dosing.

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