Prometric Questions - Yellow File - MOH | SPLE | HAAD | DHA - 28



A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of helicobacter pylori infections. She was previously treated with the classical amoxicillin, clarithromycin, omeprazole regimen. The physician is unable to obtain susceptibility testing for the Helicobacter pylori but the pattern of local antimicrobial resistance to penicillin's is well known. What would be the optimal treatment for her? 

 A) amoxicillin(1g), clarithromycin (500mg) and metronidazole(500 mg) plus omeprazole (20mg) BID for 14 days 

 B) amoxicillin(1g), clarithromycin(500 mg) and metronidazole (500 mg) plus omeprazole (40mg) BID for 14 days 

 C) bismuth subsalicylate525 QID and tetracycline (500 mg) QID plus metronidazole (500 mg) and omeprazole (40mg) BID for 14 days 

 D) bismuth subsalicylate (2) and doxycycline (100 mg) QID plus metronidazole (500 mg) TID and omeprazole (40 mg) BID for 14 days 

The correct answer is C) bismuth subsalicylate (525 mg) QID, tetracycline (500 mg) QID, metronidazole (500 mg) TID/QID, and omeprazole (20-40 mg) BID for 14 days.

This regimen is known as Bismuth Quadruple Therapy.

Why this is the Optimal Choice

When a patient fails the first-line "Triple Therapy" (Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin + PPI), it is usually due to Clarithromycin resistance. In cases where susceptibility testing is unavailable, clinical guidelines (such as the ACG guidelines) recommend switching to a different class of antibiotics to bypass the resistance.

Avoids Cross-Resistance: By using Tetracycline and Metronidazole, you avoid the Clarithromycin the patient has already failed.

Synergy of Bismuth: Bismuth has direct antimicrobial effects against H. pylori and helps break down the protective biofilm the bacteria create.

Standard of Care: Bismuth Quadruple Therapy is now frequently recommended as a first-line or rescue therapy in areas with high Clarithromycin resistance.

Analyzing the Other Options

A & B (Concomitant Therapy): While "Non-Bismuth Quadruple Therapy" (PPI + Amox + Clarithro + Metro) is a valid first-line option, it still contains Clarithromycin. Since the patient already failed a Clarithromycin-based regimen, reusing it is not the most "optimal" strategy.

D (Doxycycline): While Doxycycline is in the same class as Tetracycline, it is significantly less effective for eradicating H. pylori. Tetracycline is the preferred agent in the quadruple regimen.

Clinical Note on Administration

Patients often find the Bismuth Quadruple Therapy difficult because of the high pill burden (often 12–14 pills a day). As a pharmacist, it’s vital to counsel them on:

  • Stool color: Bismuth can turn stools black (harmless).
  • Photosensitivity: Tetracycline makes you burn easier in the sun.
  • Alcohol: Metronidazole causes a "disulfiram-like reaction" (severe nausea/vomiting) if mixed with alcohol.
When:
  • There is prior clarithromycin exposure, OR
  • Local resistance patterns are known/unfavorable, OR
  • Susceptibility testing is unavailable
 The recommended salvage regimen is bismuth-based quadruple therapy for 14 days.

Standard Bismuth Quadruple Therapy:

PPI (e.g., omeprazole 40 mg BID)
Bismuth subsalicylate 525 mg QID
Tetracycline 500 mg QID
Metronidazole 500 mg TID–QID
This matches option C.

Which of the following is the most appropriate regimen to prevent constipation in a patient starting on morphine for pain?

A) docusate and Senna 

B) Bisacodyl and lactulose 

C) polyethylene glycol and Metamucil 

D) methylnaltrexone and magnesium sulfate

The correct answer is A) docusate and Senna.

In clinical practice, this is often referred to as the "mush and push" approach. It is the gold-standard preventive regimen for Opioid-Induced Constipation (OIC).

Why this combination is the "Gold Standard"

Opioids like morphine cause constipation through two main mechanisms: they increase water absorption from the stool (making it hard) and they paralyze the rhythmic contractions of the gut (slowing motility).

Docusate (The "Mush"): This is a stool softener. It acts as a surfactant, allowing water and fats to penetrate the stool, keeping it soft.

Senna (The "Push"): This is a stimulant laxative. It irritates the lining of the bowel to trigger peristalsis, forcing the stool to move through the colon.

Analyzing the Other Options

B) Bisacodyl and Lactulose: While effective for treating existing constipation, this combination is often too aggressive or "gas-producing" (in the case of lactulose) to be used as a standard preventative daily regimen.

C) Polyethylene Glycol (PEG) and Metamucil: Metamucil (Fiber/Bulk-forming laxative) is generally avoided in OIC. If the gut isn't moving (because of the morphine), adding bulk can lead to a bowel obstruction or fecal impaction. "Bulk without brio" is a dangerous combination.

D) Methylnaltrexone and Magnesium Sulfate: Methylnaltrexone is a peripheral opioid antagonist used only for refractory OIC (cases that don't respond to anything else). It is far too expensive and potent to be used as a first-line preventive measure.

Clinical Pearl

The most important rule in palliative care and pain management is: "The hand that writes the opioid prescription must also write the laxative prescription." Prevention should always start at the same time as the morphine.

Which of the following error detection strategies result in limiting detection?  

A) bar-coding  

B) trigger tools  

C) voluntary reporting  

D) mandatory reporting 

The correct answer is C) voluntary reporting.

In the context of patient safety and quality improvement, "limiting detection" refers to a strategy that captures only a small fraction of actual errors, often providing an incomplete or skewed picture of the true risks.

Why Voluntary Reporting is "Limited"

Voluntary reporting depends entirely on a healthcare professional’s initiative to identify, document, and submit an error. This results in several significant limitations:

  • Under-reporting: Studies consistently show that voluntary systems capture as little as 10% to 20% of actual adverse events.
  • Selection Bias: Staff are more likely to report "near misses" or dramatic one-time events, while routine, systemic errors (like chronic medication delays) are often ignored.
  • Fear of Blame: Even in a "just culture," many clinicians fear the perceived stigma or legal repercussions of self-reporting.
  • Time Constraints: In a busy pharmacy or hospital ward, filing a report is often seen as a secondary administrative burden.

Comparing the Strategies

StrategyDetection CapabilityEffectiveness
Bar-codingHighProvides real-time, automated checks at the point of care to prevent errors before they reach the patient.
Trigger ToolsHighAn active "mining" strategy. It looks for specific clues (triggers) in records—like a sudden prescription for Naloxone—to find hidden adverse events.
Mandatory ReportingModerateUsually focuses on "never events" or serious injuries. While it ensures serious errors are documented, it still misses the broader range of minor errors.
Voluntary ReportingLow (Limited)Passive. It waits for someone to speak up, which results in the lowest detection rate of the four.
Summary for your exam
When you see the phrase "limiting detection" or "under-reporting," your mind should immediately jump to Voluntary Reporting. It is useful for identifying specific safety hazards, but it is notoriously poor at quantifying the total number of errors in a system.

Which of the following ethical principle is violated, when as a pharmacist, time and consultations is given to only relative?  

A) justice  

B) autonomy  

C) beneficence  

D) non-maleficence 

The correct answer is A) Justice.

In healthcare ethics, Justice refers to the principle of fairness and equality. As a pharmacist, you have a professional obligation to distribute your time, expertise, and resources equitably among all patients.

Why this violates Justice

When you provide high-quality consultations only to relatives while neglecting other patients, you are practicing favoritism. This creates an unfair distribution of care based on personal relationships rather than clinical need.

The Four Pillars of Healthcare Ethics

PrincipleCore DefinitionHow it applies here
JusticeFairness, equity, and the impartial distribution of resources.Violated: Because you are giving preferential treatment to specific individuals.
AutonomyRespecting a patient’s right to make their own informed decisions.Not directly violated: This would be an issue if you forced a treatment on a patient without consent.
BeneficenceActing in the best interest of the patient to provide benefit.Incomplete application: You are being beneficent to your relative, but failing in your broader professional duty.
Non-maleficenceThe duty to "do no harm."Indirectly violated: While not "poisoning" a patient, neglecting a consultation for a stranger could lead to medication errors (harm).
Pro-Tip for the Exam
Whenever a question involves unequal treatment, discrimination, or resource allocation (like who gets a limited drug or who gets a pharmacist's time), the answer is almost always Justice.


Which of the following is the precursor for 5_hydroxytryptamine?     

A) proline  

B) alanine  

C) glutamine  

D) tryptophan 

The correct answer is D) tryptophan.

5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) is the chemical name for the neurotransmitter serotonin. Your body synthesizes it through a two-step metabolic pathway starting with the essential amino acid L-tryptophan.

The Synthesis Pathway

Here is how your body converts that turkey dinner (or other protein sources) into a mood-regulating chemical:

Hydroxylation: The enzyme tryptophan hydroxylase adds a hydroxyl group to tryptophan, turning it into 5-hydroxytryptophan (5-HTP).

Decarboxylation: The enzyme aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase removes a carboxyl group, resulting in 5-hydroxytryptamine (Serotonin).

Why the others are incorrect:

Proline: Mainly used for collagen structure and wound healing.

Alanine: Involved in sugar metabolism (the glucose-alanine cycle) and protein synthesis.

Glutamine: The precursor for GABA (an inhibitory neurotransmitter) and Glutamate (an excitatory neurotransmitter), but not serotonin.


In statistical testing: Which of the following is the interpretation of the result of a statistical test 

denoted P? 

A) the null hypothesis H₀ is rejected if P> 0.05  

B) the null hypothesis H₀ is accepted if P < 0.05  

C) the null hypothesis H₀ is rejected if p <0.05  

D) the null hypothesis H₀ is accepted if p> 0.05  

The correct answer is C) the null hypothesis H₀ is rejected if p < 0.05.

In the world of statistics, the p-value acts as a "credibility score" for the null hypothesis (H₀). When that score gets too low, we stop believing in H₀ and pivot to the alternative.

Breaking Down the Logic

To keep it simple, think of the p-value as the probability that your results happened by pure, random chance.

The Threshold (Alpha): Conventionally, we use 0.05 (5%) as the line in the sand.

The Decision: 

If p < 0.05: The result is "statistically significant." The chance of this happening by accident is so small that we reject the null hypothesis.

If p ≥0.05: The result is not significant. We fail to reject the null hypothesis (note: statisticians rarely use the word "accept" because we haven't proven H₀ is true; we just don't have enough evidence to toss it out).

Why the other options don't quite fits

A: This is backwards. A high p-value means the data is consistent with the null hypothesis, so you wouldn't reject it.

B: A low p-value is the "green light" to reject the null, not keep it.

D: While this is what happens in practice, the term "accepted" is technically a bit of a faux pas in formal statistics. We prefer saying we "fail to reject" it. However, even ignoring the terminology, C is the standard definition of a significant result.

Note: We usually say “fail to reject H₀” rather than “accept H₀” because a non-significant result does not prove the null hypothesis is true.

To read more such exam questions with explanation visit the blog or click on Prometric Exams.



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