Prometric Questions - Yellow File - MOH | SPLE | HAAD | DHA - 26

 


Which of the following vaccines is recommended for people at the age of ≥65 years?
A) hepatitis B vaccine 
B) pneumococcal vaccine
C) meningococcal vaccine
D) DTaP vaccine (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis)

The correct answer is B) pneumococcal vaccine.

While other vaccines are sometimes given based on specific health risks or lifestyle factors, the pneumococcal vaccine is a standard recommendation for all adults in this age group to prevent serious infections like pneumonia, meningitis, and bloodstream infections caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.


Why the others aren't the primary choice:

  • Hepatitis B (A): Usually recommended for younger adults or those with specific risk factors (like diabetes or healthcare work).

  • Meningococcal (C): Generally targeted at adolescents, college students living in dorms, or travelers to specific regions.

  • DTaP (D): This specific version is for children under 7. Adults receive the Tdap (booster) or Td vaccine instead.

Pneumococcal Guidelines for Age≥65

Healthcare providers typically use two types of vaccines to ensure broad protection. The schedule often depends on whether the individual has received a dose previously.

Vaccine TypeCommon BrandTarget
PCV15 or PCV20PrevnarConjugate vaccines that prime the immune system.
PPSV23PneumovaxPolysaccharide vaccine covering 23 strains of the bacteria.
A Note on the "Flu" Shot: While not in the list, the High-Dose Flu Vaccine is also a primary recommendation for those 65+ because the immune system needs a bit more "instruction" to mount a strong defense as we age.

📌 Exam tip:
Age ≥65 years → Pneumococcal vaccine (PCV and/or PPSV depending on guidelines)

Which of the following is an example of a parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor?
A) enoxaparin 
B) argatroban
C)fondaparinux
D)unfractionated heparin

The correct answer is B) argatroban.
Direct Thrombin Inhibitors (DTIs) work by binding directly to thrombin (Factor IIa), preventing it from converting fibrinogen into fibrin. This mechanism is distinct from heparins, which require a cofactor to work.
Why Argatroban is the choice:
Mechanism: It binds directly to the active site of free and clot-bound thrombin.
Route: It is administered intravenously (parenterally).
Clinical Use: It is the "gold standard" alternative for patients who develop Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT), as it does not cross-react with HIT antibodies.

Breaking down the distractors:
The other options listed are all types of indirect anticoagulants because they require Antithrombin III to function:
Enoxaparin (A): A Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH). It primarily inhibits Factor Xa.
Fondaparinux (C): A synthetic pentasaccharide that selectively inhibits Factor Xa; it is not a thrombin inhibitor.
Unfractionated Heparin (D): An indirect inhibitor that acts on both Factor Xa and Thrombin via antithrombin.

Comparison of Parenteral Anticoagulants

DrugClassPrimary Target
ArgatrobanDirect Thrombin Inhibitor (DTI)Factor IIa (Thrombin)
BivalirudinDirect Thrombin Inhibitor (DTI)Factor IIa (Thrombin)
HeparinIndirect Thrombin InhibitorFactors IIa and Xa
EnoxaparinLMWH (Indirect)Factor Xa > IIa
FondaparinuxFactor Xa Inhibitor (Indirect)Factor Xa
📌 Key exam point: Parenteral direct thrombin inhibitors = Argatroban, Bivalirudin

Which of the following is the timeline when symptoms start to occur in type-1 diabetes mellitus?
A) as early when destruction of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas is starting
B) when 50% of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas are destroyed 
C) when 70% of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas are destroyed
D) when destruction of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas is complete

The correct answer is C) when 80–90% (often approximated as 70–90%) of the islets of Langerhans are destroyed.
In Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM), the clinical onset of symptoms—such as polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss—does not occur until the vast majority of insulin-producing beta cells in the islets of Langerhans have been destroyed by the autoimmune process.
Why the timeline matter:
The pancreas has a significant "functional reserve." This means it can maintain normal or near-normal blood glucose levels even while a steady autoimmune attack is underway.
The Preclinical Phase: Autoantibodies (like GAD65) can be detected in the blood years before any symptoms appear. During this time, the remaining beta cells compensate by working harder.
The Tipping Point: Symptoms only emerge when the "honeycomb" of beta cells is so depleted that the remaining 10%-20% can no longer produce enough insulin to maintain basal metabolic needs.
The "Honeymoon" Phase: Shortly after diagnosis and the start of insulin therapy, some patients experience a temporary recovery in islet function, but this is short-lived as the remaining cells are eventually destroyed.
Staging of Type 1 Diabetes
Modern medicine categorizes the progression into three distinct stages:

StageCharacteristicsSymptoms
Stage 1Autoimmunity (2+ autoantibodies); Normal blood sugar.None
Stage 2Autoimmunity; Dysglycemia (impaired glucose tolerance).None/Minimal
Stage 3Critical loss of beta cells (>70-80%).Classic Symptoms (Polyuria, DKA)
📌 Exam tip: Type 1 DM symptoms appear after ~70% β-cell destruction

Which of the following of the hypertensive therapies is preferred to be used during the acute phase of ischemic stroke if elevated blood pressure should be treated?
A) lisinopril 
B) nicardipine
C) hydrochlorothiazide
D) metoprolol succinate

The correct answer is B) nicardipine.

In the acute phase of an ischemic stroke, blood pressure management requires medications that are titratable, have a rapid onset, and do not significantly increase intracranial pressure.

Why Nicardipine is the Preferred Agent:
Nicardipine is a second-generation dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker administered via continuous intravenous infusion. It is favored for several reasons:
Precision Control: Its short half-life allows clinicians to "titrate" the dose (adjust it up or down quickly) to keep blood pressure within a very narrow target range.
Predictability: It effectively lowers systemic vascular resistance without causing the drastic, unpredictable drops in blood pressure that can worsen brain ischemia.
Organ Protection: It has a favorable profile for cerebral blood flow compared to older vasodilators like nitroprusside.
[NOTE]
Labetalol (an IV beta-blocker) is the other primary first-line agent used alongside nicardipine in this clinical setting.

Why the others are less ideal in the acute phase:
❎Lisinopril (A): This is an oral ACE inhibitor. In the acute phase of a stroke, oral medications are avoided due to potential swallowing difficulties (dysphagia) and the inability to "turn off" the drug's effect if the blood pressure drops too low.
Hydrochlorothiazide (C): This is a diuretic used for long-term maintenance. It does not lower blood pressure quickly enough for acute emergency management.
Metoprolol Succinate (D): This is the extended-release version of metoprolol. In an acute stroke, you need immediate action; long-acting oral medications are contraindicated during the initial stabilization period.

Treatment Thresholds in Ischemic Stroke
The goal isn't always to make the blood pressure "normal" immediately, as the brain needs some pressure to perfuse the injured tissue:
ScenarioBP Threshold for Treatment
Candidate for Alteplase (tPA)Must be lowered to <185/110 mmHg before starting.
Not a candidate for AlteplaseTreated only if >220/120 mmHg (unless other organ damage is present).
📌 Exam tip:
Acute ischemic stroke BP control → IV nicardipine or IV labetalol


Which of the following conditions use " the plate method" as lifestyle modification?
A) asthma
B) dyslipidemia
C) hypertension 
D) diabetes mellitus

The correct answer is D) diabetes mellitus.

The Diabetes Plate Method is a visual guide created by the American Diabetes Association (ADA) to help patients manage their blood glucose levels without the need for constant calorie counting or complex math. It focuses on portion control and the glycemic index of foods.

How the Plate Method Works
The goal is to balance macronutrients to prevent sharp "spikes" in blood sugar. Imagine a standard 9-inch dinner plate:

1/2 Non-Starchy Vegetables: (e.g., spinach, broccoli, peppers). these are high in fiber and low in carbohydrates.

1/4 Lean Protein: (e.g., chicken, fish, tofu, or lean beef). Protein helps slow the absorption of glucose.

1/4 Carbohydrates: (e.g., whole grains, starchy vegetables like potatoes, or fruit). This limits the total glucose load per meal.

Why the other options use different "Methods":
Hypertension (C): While the plate method is healthy, the "gold standard" lifestyle modification for high blood pressure is the DASH Diet (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension), which specifically emphasizes low sodium and high potassium/magnesium.

Dyslipidemia (B): This usually focuses on the TLC (Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes) Diet or the Mediterranean Diet, prioritizing the type of fat (unsaturated vs. saturated) over the specific plate geometry.

Asthma (A): Lifestyle modifications for asthma generally focus on trigger avoidance (smoke, dander, pollen) and weight management rather than a specific dietary plating technique.

Summary Comparison:

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